[Posted 25/May/2023]

AUDIENCE: Neurology, Internal Medicine

KEY FINDINGS: The results show that combining scRNA-seq and WGS data can successfully detect putative somatic mutations. The putative somatic mutations detected from ROSMAP data set have provided new insights into the association of AD and aging with brain somatic mutagenesis.

BACKGROUND: With age, somatic mutations accumulated in human brain cells can lead to various neurologic disorders and brain tumors. Because the incidence rate of Alzheimer disease (AD) increases exponentially with age, investigating the association between AD and the accumulation of somatic mutation can help understand the etiology of AD.

DETAILS: Authors designed a somatic mutation detection workflow by contrasting genotypes derived from whole-genome sequencing (WGS) data with genotypes derived from scRNA-seq data and applied this workflow to 76 participants from the Religious Order Study and the Rush Memory and Aging Project (ROSMAP) cohort. We focused only on excitatory neurons, the dominant cell type in the scRNA-seq data. 196 sites were identified that harbored at least 1 individual with an excitatory neuron–specific somatic mutation (ENSM), and these 196 sites were mapped to 127 genes. The single base substitution (SBS) pattern of the putative ENSMs was best explained by signature SBS5 from the Catalogue of Somatic Mutations in Cancer (COSMIC) mutational signatures, a clock-like pattern correlating with the age of the individual. The count of ENSMs per individual also showed an increasing trend with age. Among the mutated sites, we found 2 sites tend to have more mutations in older individuals (16:6899517 [RBFOX1], p = 0.04; 4:21788463 [KCNIP4], p < lt; 0.05). In addition, 2 sites were found to have a higher odds ratio to detect a somatic mutation in AD samples (6:73374221 [KCNQ5], p = 0.01 and 13:36667102 [DCLK1], p = 0.02). Thirty-two genes that harbor somatic mutations unique to AD and the KCNQ5 and DCLK1 genes were used for gene ontology (GO)–term enrichment analysis. We found the AD-specific ENSMs enriched in the GO-term "vocalization behavior" and "intraspecies interaction between organisms." Of interest we observed both age-specific and AD-specific ENSMs enriched in the K+ channel–associated genes.

Copyright © American Academy of Neurology. All Rights Reserved.

Source: Zhang, M., Bouland, G. A., Holstege, H., et al. (2023). Identifying Aging and Alzheimer Disease-Associated Somatic Variations in Excitatory Neurons From the Human Frontal Cortex. Neuro Genetics. 2023; 9(3): e200066. Published: June, 2023. DOI: 10.1212/NXG.0000000000200066.

Clinical Characteristics and Neurodevelopmental Outcomes in 30 Patients

[Posted 19/Jun/2026]

AUDIENCE: Neurology, Neonatology

KEY FINDINGS: KCNQ2-related neonatal epilepsy shows robust, topology-dependent genotype-phenotype correlations with prognostic utility: early EEG patterns flag risk; transmembrane missense variants are associated with DEE, whereas single-allele truncating/NMD variants are associated with SeL(F)NE. Apparent benefits of oxcarbazepine reflect associations in an observational cohort and should not be interpreted as causal; prospective, phenotype-stratified studies are warranted. Long-term developmental surveillance remains essential, particularly for individuals with DEE and those with severe early EEG patterns or variants in transmembrane/pore regions.

BACKGROUND: The aim of this study was to characterize clinical features, genetic architecture, treatment responses, and neurodevelopmental outcomes in neonatal epilepsy associated with KCNQ2 variants and to delineate genotype-phenotype correlations.

DETAILS: Authors conducted a retrospective, two-center study of 30 neonates from 2019 to 2024. All patients underwent whole-exome sequencing with Sanger confirmation and, at last follow-up, were classified, according to International League Against Epilepsy criteria as having self-limited (familial) neonatal epilepsy (SeL[F]NE) or developmental and epileptic encephalopathy (DEE). Primary outcomes were seizure freedom by 6 months and milestone-based three-level neurodevelopment (normal/mild/severe). Clinical/EEG/MRI features and variant class/topology were compared across phenotypes. Most infants presented in the first week of life (median 3 days), typically with focal tonic seizures. EEG abnormalities were common (90%); burst-suppression/profound discontinuity consistently signaled adverse neurodevelopment. MRI was often normal (53%) or nonspecific. Authors identified 29 distinct variants (32 occurrences) across 30 patients. Twenty-eight carried a single heterozygous variant, and 2 carried 2 heterozygous variants (phase not determined); missense variants predominated (21/30, 70%). Clear topology-phenotype patterns emerged: transmembrane missense variants—especially S5-pore-S6—were enriched in DEE, whereas C-terminal/nontransmembrane variants were associated with SeL(F)NE and benign outcomes. At the last follow-up, SeL(F)NE accounted for 63% and DEE 37%. Seizure freedom reached 93%. Oxcarbazepine was often associated with seizure control after phenobarbital nonresponse, but this observational signal should not be interpreted as causal. Neurodevelopment was normal in 63%; delays occurred only within the DEE cohort. All 5 single-allele truncating/NMD lesions (CNV deletion, canonical splice-site, 2 nonsense, 1 frameshift) aligned with SeL(F)NE, whereas the 2 individuals with 2 heterozygous variants were classified as DEE with marked impairment; however, phase was not determined and 1 recurrent variant (p.E515D) was classified as likely benign, precluding inference of 2 pathogenic alleles.

Copyright © American Academy of Neurology. All Rights Reserved.

Source: Li, Y., Li, J., Li, L., et al. KCNQ2 Variants in Neonatal Epilepsy: Clinical Characteristics and Neurodevelopmental Outcomes in 30 Patients. Neuro Genetics. 2026; 12(3): e200380. Published: June, 2026. 12(3): e200380. DOI: 10.1212/NXG.0000000000200380.

[Posted 15/Jun/2026]

AUDIENCE: Infectious Disease, Internal Medicine

KEY FINDINGS: Study results suggest that clinicians should initiate antiviral chemoprophylaxis for at least 70% of eligible NH residents within 2 days of outbreak detection to lower risk of hospitalization.

BACKGROUND: Influenza outbreaks in nursing homes (NHs) pose a substantial threat to older adults, often resulting in morbidity and mortality. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) recommend prompt postexposure prophylaxis, also termed chemoprophylaxis or prophylaxis with oseltamivir, for all residents who are not ill to limit influenza spread in NHs. Purpose of the study is to examine whether initiating antiviral chemoprophylaxis for 70% or more of eligible NH residents within 2 days of influenza outbreak detection is associated with lower all-cause mortality and hospitalization at 14 and 30 days.

DETAILS: Retrospective cohort study using a sequential cluster-randomized target trial emulation and randomize-censor-weight approach for influenza outbreaks (September 1, 2018-May 31, 2022) in 12 US NH corporations. Eligibility criteria were age 18 years or older, present on the outbreak-detection day, no antiviral use in the preceding 7 days, no influenza in the past 14 days, and complete baseline data. Residents were followed up until hospitalization or death, an NH discharge to a nonacute-care location, or the end of follow-up. Data were analyzed from February 2023 to January 2026.

Exposures: Intensive antiviral chemoprophylaxis with oseltamivir (>=70% of eligible residents within 2 days of outbreak detection) or nonintensive antiviral chemoprophylaxis (0% to <70% of eligible residents).

Outcomes were all-cause death and hospitalizations within 14 and 30 days of outbreak detection. Discrete-time hazard models with pooled logistic regression were applied to estimate weighted risks, risk differences (RDs), and risk ratios (RRs).

Among 404 outbreaks in 318 NHs, 35,086 resident-trial observations (29,683 residents; median age 78 [IQR, 68- 86] years; 60% women; 81% White; 76% vaccinated) met eligibility criteria. Intensive oseltamivir prophylaxis was randomized to 17,155 observations; 17,931 were randomized to nonintensive care. At 14 days, intensive prophylaxis vs nonintensive yielded an RD of -0.06% (95% CI, -0.73% to 0.93%) and an RR of 0.96 (95% CI, 0.56-1.57) for death, and an RD of -0.96% (95% CI, -1.78% to -0.19%) and an RR of 0.79 (95% CI, 0.64-0.96) for hospitalization. At 30 days, the hospitalization differences persisted but were less precise and there continued to be no difference in death.

Copyright © American Medical Association. All Rights Reserved.

Source: Silva, J. B. B., Hsieh, H. T., Howe, C. J., et al. Prompt and Intensive Antiviral Chemoprophylaxis in Nursing Home Influenza Outbreaks. JAMA Internal Medicine.. 2026; 186(6): 714-722. Published: June, 2026. DOI: 10.1001/jamainternmed.2026.0401

A Multisite Phase 3 Randomized Clinical Trial

[Posted 9/Jun/2026]

AUDIENCE: Psychiatry, Family Medicine

KEY FINDINGS: In this parallel-group randomized clinical trial, mirtazapine delivered in routine clinical practice reduced methamphetamine use in adults with methamphetamine use disorder. No unexpected safety concerns delivering mirtazapine in this setting were found; this finding has important clinical implications in the absence of any approved pharmacotherapies for methamphetamine use disorder.

BACKGROUND: Methamphetamine use disorder is a global health challenge for which there are no approved pharmacotherapies. The safety and effectiveness of mirtazapine, a promising candidate for methamphetamine use disorder, has not been established in routine clinical practice. Purpose is to determine the safety and effectiveness of mirtazapine as a pharmacotherapy for methamphetamine use disorder in routine clinical practice.

DETAILS: This phase 3, parallel-group, double-blind, placebo-controlled randomized clinical trial was conducted between November 16, 2022, and May 1, 2025, at 6 outpatient alcohol and other drug clinics in Australia among adults with moderate to severe methamphetamine use disorder. Data analysis was conducted from May to September 2025. The primary end point was the change in days of methamphetamine use in the past 28 days from baseline to week 12. Secondary end points were depression, insomnia, HIV risk behavior, quality of life, and methamphetamine-negative oral fluid samples. Of 344 participants randomized, 339 participants received the intervention (167 in the placebo group and 172 in the mirtazapine group). Mean (SD) age was 42.0 (8.6) years, 126 participants (37.2%) were female, and participants had used methamphetamine for a median (IQR) of 24 days (17-28) of the past 28 days at baseline. The mean reduction in days of methamphetamine use from baseline to week 12 was greater in the mirtazapine group (7.0 days of 28 days) than in the placebo group (4.8 days of 28 days; mean difference, 2.2 days; 95% CI, -4.2 to -0.2 days; P = .02). More participants in the mirtazapine group reported drowsiness (47% vs 33%) and weight gain (10% vs 3%). Forty participants (23%) discontinued mirtazapine due to adverse events compared to 25 participants (15%) in the placebo group. No significant effects of mirtazapine on secondary end points were found.

Copyright © American Medical Association. All Rights Reserved.

Source: McKetin, R., Shoptaw, S., Saunders, L., et al. Mirtazapine for Methamphetamine Use Disorder: A Randomized Clinical Trial. JAMA Psychiatry. 2026; 83(6):581-589. Published: June, 2026. DOI: 10.1001/jamapsychiatry.2026.0159.

[Posted 27/May/2026]

AUDIENCE: Infectious Disease, Family Medicine

KEY FINDINGS: A primary challenge in this specific outbreak is the nature of the causative agent, the Bundibugyo virus. Unlike the more common Zaire ebolavirus, there is currently no licensed vaccine or specific, FDA-approved treatment effective against the Bundibugyo strain. Consequently, the public health response relies entirely on traditional containment strategies. These include rapid case detection, patient isolation, meticulous contact tracing, the promotion of infection prevention and control practices, safe burial procedures, and robust community education to curb transmission chains. Researchers are currently evaluating whether existing therapeutic candidates or vaccine platforms could be adapted for emergency use, though clinical implementation remains under investigation.

BACKGROUND: In response to a burgeoning outbreak of Ebola virus disease caused by the Bundibugyo strain, the United States government has enacted new travel and entry protocols. The current outbreak, centered in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and involving cases in South Sudan and Uganda, has prompted international health authorities to declare a public health emergency. As global travel remains a potential vector for the international spread of the virus, the U.S. government has taken proactive measures to bolster domestic defense against the introduction of the pathogen.

DETAILS: Effective May 2026, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Department of Homeland Security have implemented stringent travel requirements. Foreign nationals who have visited the DRC, South Sudan, or Uganda within the 21 days prior to their arrival are temporarily suspended from entry into the United States. Furthermore, all U.S. citizens, nationals, and lawful permanent residents returning from these three countries must route their travel through specifically designated entry points, including Washington-Dulles International Airport, where they are subject to enhanced public health screening. These measures include health questionnaires, temperature checks using non-contact technology, and verification of contact information to facilitate monitoring for symptoms over a 21-day period following departure from the affected regions. While the current outbreak is significant—with reports indicating nearly 500 suspected cases and more than 130 deaths since the official declaration on May 15—the domestic risk to the United States is currently assessed by the CDC as low. As of late May 2026, no suspected, probable, or confirmed cases of Ebola have been reported within the United States. Authorities are maintaining a state of high readiness, with regional hospitals and state health departments prepared to manage and isolate any potential symptomatic travelers identified through the screening process.

Source: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Enhanced Ebola Airport Screening Begins at Washington-Dulles International Airport. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. CDC. Published: May, 2026.

A Randomized Controlled Comparative Study

[Posted 19/May/2026]

AUDIENCE: General Surgery, Family Medicine

KEY FINDINGS: Early active treatment with isotretinoin and FMRF is safe and better than isotretinoin monotherapy over 44 weeks regarding severity, reduced erythema, and improved surface roughness in moderate-to-severe acne vulgaris. This encourages early and effective treatment of acne to mitigate acne scarring and improve patients' quality of life.

BACKGROUND: Oral isotretinoin is the standard therapy for severe acne. However, scarring may persist. Fractional microneedling radiofrequency (FMRF) improves both inflammatory lesions and scars with minimal downtime. In this study, we compare isotretinoin monotherapy and concurrent isotretinoin and FMRF for active acne regarding clinical outcomes. The GAGS scores of isotretinoin and FMRF were significantly lower than those of isotretinoin monotherapy from weeks 12-44 (-79.69% vs. -60.34% at week 44, respectively; p < 0.001). Isotretinoin and FMRF showed significantly greater lesion count reductions than isotretinoin monotherapy at follow-up visits from weeks 12-44. Isotretinoin and FMRF showed significantly lower hemoglobin levels than isotretinoin monotherapy at weeks 32 and 44 (p = 0.029 and p < 0.001, respectively). Skin surface roughness improved substantially and persistently from week 12-44.

DETAILS: In this parallel two-group comparative study, patients received either low-dose isotretinoin monotherapy for 20 weeks (n = 34) or low-dose isotretinoin concurrently with 5 monthly FMRF sessions (n = 36). Outcomes were assessed at baseline and weeks 12, 20, 24, 32, and 44. The primary endpoints were Global Acne Grading System (GAGS) scores and inflammatory/non-inflammatory lesion counts. Secondary endpoints were hemoglobin indices and skin roughness.

Copyright © Wiley Periodicals LLC. All rights reserved

Source: Disphanurat, W., Leeyangyuen, P,, and Srisantithum, B. Efficacy of Low-Dose Oral Isotretinoin Combined With Fractional Microneedle Radiofrequency Versus Low-Dose Oral Isotretinoin Monotherapy in the Treatment of Moderate-To-Severe Acne Vulgaris: A Randomized Controlled Comparative Study. Lasers in Surgery and Medicine. 2026; 58(4): 321-330. Published: April, 2026. DOI: 10.1002/lsm.70120.